Joel B. Green is asking me, in a comment to a posting below, how I - considering my own work on 1 Peter - would consider the question of 1 Peter being written for Jews.
This question has been lingering in my head for some days, and has made me rethink the issue; if I am right in suggesting that 1 Peter is using proselyte terminology in describing its readers (cf. the hypothesis of my book listed in the right column here concerning i.a., paroikos and parepidemos), how should that influence my view of the readers? Would it in fact fit better into a view that 1 Peter is written for Jewish Christians than the other alternative, written for former Gentiles?
I must admit; I think it could be used for both views. I think the author could rest confident that both a former Gentile, and a Jewish Christian would recognize the terminology, and understand its implications.
Hence, in my view, it is not crucial in getting to know who the first readers might have been.
Or what do you think?
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